Multiple Choice Questions 101-200

Key Code: I

The typical multiple myeloma cell population is found to excrete:

A) a single immunoglobulin structure where all the antigen-binding regions are identical
B) all the isotypes of the Ig heavy (H) chain
C) all the isotypes of the Ig light (L) chain
D) immunoglobulins with more than one structure for the antigen-binding region occurring on a single molecule
E) many distinct immunoglobulin molecules, each with a different amino acid sequence within the variable regions of the H and L chains.

Answer: A 

(Year Posted:UI  101)

 

Key Code: V, Key Code: N

Which of the following is a contraindication for MMR vaccination?

A) Down's syndrome
B) hay fever
C) migraines
D) pregnancy
E) stress

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  102)

 

Key Code: V

The following terms are used for describing features of measles and measles vaccination. Which is correctly paired with its description/definition?

A) Coryza - Acute laryngitis together with middle ear inflammation
B) Intravenous - Route for immunization with MMR
C) Koplik's spots - Exanthem
D) MMR Vaccine - which is composed of inactivated (dead) viral particles
E) Prodrome - Stage when patient is ill but rash has not appeared

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI  103)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following features of the agar is correct for the type of hemolysis seen around bacteria growing on a blood agar plate?

a hemolysisb hemolysisg hemolysis

A)

green

clear zones

no hemolysis

B)clear zonesgreenno hemolysis

C)greenno hemolysisclear zones

D)clear zonesno hemolysisgreen

E)no hemolysisclear zonesgreen

Fno hemolysisgreenclear zones


Answer: A 

(Year Posted: 2001 UI  104)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: M

Identify the correct order for adding reagents in the Gram stain

 

Step 1Step 2Step 3Step 4A)

Iodine

Crystal Violet

Destain

Safranin

B)IodineSafraninCrystal VioletDestain

C)IodineDestainSafraninCrystal Violet

D)

Iodine

Crystal Violet

SafraninDestainE)

None of the above (A-D)


Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 105)

 

Key Code: I

During the development of B-2 cells, which immunoglobulin chain is the first to be expressed on the cell surface?

A) delta(d)
B) epsilon((e)
C) gamma((g)
D) kappa((k)
E) mu (m)

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI  106)

 

Key Code: I, Key Code: B, Key Code: N

A patient presents with his fifth neisserial infection (i.e. infection caused by a species of Neisseria) in 4 months. A measurement of total hemoltytic complement activity reveals non-detectable activity. This picture is most consistent with:

A) C1 inhibitor deficiencies
B) C6 deficiency
C) DAF defect
D) Factor B deficiency
E) Overexpression of C

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI  107)

 

Key Code: I

NK cells kill virally-infected cells that express:

A) elevated levels of MHC class II
B) reduced levels of MHC class I
C) IL-12 receptors
D) T cell receptors
E) CR4

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI  108)

 

Key Code: F

Which of the following does NOT cause ringworm?

A) Epidermophyton floccosum
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Microsporum audouinii
D) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
E) Trichophyton rubrum

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: 2001 UI  109)

 

Key Code: F

Candida parapsilosis is a clinically significant species of Candida. It produces:

A) germ tubes in germ tube broth
B) chlamydospores on corn meal agar
C) pseudohyphae
D) all of the above

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  110)

Key Code: F

A lady stabbed her finger on a rose thorn while pruning back the rose bushes in her yard. Two weeks later, a very painful infected finger was observed and did not get better when she was treated with antibacterial antibodies. In fact, 3 weeks later, not only was the finger swollen, but painful red nodules were seen running up her arm along the lymphatic drainage vessels. Of the following, which is most likely the cause of the disease?

A) Amanitin poisoning
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Microsporum caris
D) Sporothrix schenckii
E) Trichophyton rubrum

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  111)

 

Key Code: F

Which medium is used to cultivate the etiologic agent of tinea versicolor?

A) Bird seed agar
B) Sabouraud agar lacking glucose
C) Sabouraud agar supplemented with lipid
D) All are used (A-D)

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  112)

 

Key Code: F

In order to identify the species of a dermatophyte that is causing tinea corporis in a wrestler, you need to:

A) cultivate the fungus and examine the structure of its anamorph
B) incubate the culture at 37°C to make sure the fungus develops quickly
C) perform a KOH mount showing hyphae and arthroconidia
D) perform the germ tube test
E) all of the above (A-D)

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI  113)

 

Key Code: F

Both Coccidioides immitis and Blastomyces dermatitidis:

A) are dimorphic fungi that grow as yeasts when in the lung
B) are largely restricted to persons who have lived in or visited tropical regions
C) cause pulmonary infections, but the fungus does not disseminate from the lung
D) regularly cause disease in immunocompetent persons
E) All of the above (A-D) are true of both fungi

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  114)

 

Key Code: F

Fungal hyphae differ from yeasts in that hyphae have:

A) an apical growth pattern that leads to development of mycelium
B) extracellular enzymes
C) mitochondria
D) nuclei
E) ribosomes

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI  115)

 

Key Code: F

Wood's Light, which is used to detect fungal and some bacterial infections of skin, is a form of:

A) green visible light
B) infrared light
C) light coming from conventional fluorescent light tubes, e.g. those found in offices
D) near U.V. light
E) X-irradiation

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  116)

 

Key Code: F

Round, naturally melanized (i.e., brown-pigmented) cells in human tissue represent the invasive form of the mold(s) in:

A) chromomycosis
B) ringworm
C) sportrichosis
D) tinea versicolor
E) all of the above (A-D)

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI  117)

 

Key Code: F

Which of the following is typical for the most deadly mushrooms, as opposed to those poisonous mushrooms that are not so serious? The most deadly mushrooms, such as those containing cyclopeptide toxins:

A) are restricted to the tropics
B) have a much more rapid onset of symptoms following ingestion
C) have longer incubation periods between eating and onset of symptoms
D) induce perspiration, salivation and lacrimation together with pinpoint pupils
E) taste bad, even to those who like mushrooms

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  118)

 

Key Code: N, Key Code: F, Key Code: P

What is the meaning of "ptosis"?

A) A fungus ball in the lung
B) A zygomycete infection of the lung first described by Ptolemy
C) Drooping upper eyelid
D) Extensive infection of the dry skin and nails by Candida albicans
E) Infection derived from fungi colonizing intravenous catheters
F) Psychiatric disorder characteristically associated with sniffing bird guano and animal fecal materials
G) Vaginitis and concurrent inflammation of the uterus and Fallopian tubes

Answer: C 

(Year Posted:  UI  119)

 

Key Code: B

The infectious dose for a Shigella infection is 1,000,000 times lower than the infectious dose for a Salmonella infection because:

A) Salmonella is an invasive pathogen
B) Salmonella is more resistant to basic conditions
C) Shigella can attach to epithelial cells
D) Shigella is more resistant to acidic conditions
E) Shigella produces a more potent toxin

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  120)

 

Key Code: F, Key Code: N

Which of the following diseases is strongly associated with diabetes?

A) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B) Aspergilloma
C) Invasive candidiasis of the kidneys
D) Mucosal candidiasis
E) Pneumocystosis

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  121)

 

Key Code: B

Which of the following genera includes species that cause dysentery?

A) Campylobacter
B) Pneumocystis
C) Salmonella
D) Shigella
E) Vibrio

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  122)

 

Key Code: F, Key Code: N

Which of the following findings are the best signs that a person is mounting an effective defense against disseminated histoplasmosis and is likely to recover from the infection?

A) Formation of a strong DTH skin test and rising titers of CF antibodies
B) Formation of a strong DTH skin test and low titers of CF antibodies
C) Transition from a strong to weak DTH skin test and rising titers of CF antibodies
D) Transition from a strong to weak DTH skin test and low titers of CF antibodies

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI  123)

 

Key Code: F

BOTH Candida tropicalis and Candida kefyr produce:

A) Chlamydospores
B) Germ tubes when incubated in germ tube broth
C) Yeasts
D) All of the above (A-C)

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  124)

 

Key Code: F

Bird guano-contaminated soils and bat-feces are typical environmental sources for:

A) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Candida albicans
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Cryptococcus neoformans var. gattii
E) Histoplasma capsulatum

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI  125)

 

Key Code: F

Desert soils containing a high borate concentration in the Southwest of the USA are a typical source for:

A) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Candida albicans
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Cryptococcus neoformans var. gattii
E) Histoplasma capsulatum

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  126)

 

Key Code: I, Key Code: N

What is the deficiency found in chronic granulomatous disease?

A) A reduced amount of IgM
B) A total lack of IgA
C) Deficiency of hydrogen peroxide and superoxide production by phagocytes
D) Failure to mount an antibody response to pyogenic bacteria
E) Failure to produce lymphocytes

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  127)

 

Key Code: F

Which of the following would be very rare as an invasive infection in the early stages of AIDS but not unexpected in a person with chronic granulomatous disease?

A) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Histoplasma capsulatum
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Cryptococcus neoformans
E) Failure to produce lymphocytes

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI  128)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: N

Which of the following predisposes to Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A) Immunosuppression
B) Dehydration
C) Unprotected sex
D) Smoking
E) Anemia

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI  129)

 

Key Code: I

Which of the following statements is NOT true of the basophil?

A) It has surface receptors for IgE
B) It is derived from bone marrow precursors
C) It is more avidly phagocytic than the neutrophil
D) It releases histamine upon appropriate stimulation
E) It shares many functions with the mast cell

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI  130)

 

Key Code: I

Choose the answer that contains terms that correctly complete the sentence. Allergic individuals have a tendency to respond to antigens with a 1 -type response which includes the production of IL-4 and 2 , cytokines which are essential for maturation of eosinophils and induction of an IgE response to antigen.

 

 1 2A)

TH1

IFN-g

B)TH1IL-2

C)TH2IFN-g

D)

TH2

IL-5


Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI  131)

Key Code: P

Ingestion of which of the following is MOST likely to lead to cysticercosis?  (Taenia solium is known as the pork tapeworm and Taenia saginata is known as the beef tapeworm.)

A) Taenia saginata eggs in salads
B) Taenia saginata eggs present in undercooked pork
C) Taenia saginata larvae present in undercooked beef
D) Taenia solium eggs contaminating salads
E) Taenia solium larvae in undercooked pork
F) Taenia solium larvae in undercooked beef 

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 132)

 

Key Code: I, Key Code: P, Key Code: N, Key Code: F, Key Code: V

Atopic persons (i.e. those with atopy) are:

A) completely resistant to infection by Coccidioides immitis
B) deficient in production of IL-4
C) extremely susceptible to invasive candidiasis
D) predisposed to develop IgE-mediated allergic responses
E) those persons who harbor, at the time of establishment of the condition, more than one tapeworm
F) those persons who lack a chemokine receptor and so do not develop AIDS 

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 133)

 

Key Code: F

Many fungi can invade neutropenic patients, but of all the molds, Aspergillus fumigatus predominates.  Which of the following provides a correct description for this fungus or invasive  aspergillosis?

A) If invasive aspergillosis is suspected, a blood specimen should be cultured as absence of the fungus in the culture would almost certainly rule out Aspergillus fumigatus as the etiologic agent
B) Sporangiospores are the infectious form of the fungus
C) The typical histological picture of invasive aspergillosis is the finding of septate hyphae that branch at an approximately 45º angle
D) The most common source for infectious fungus is its growth on tips of contaminated intravenous catheters
E) There is a strong tendency for Aspergillus fumigatus to cause rhinocebral infections in persons with diabetic ketoacidosis 

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI 134)

 

Key Code: F

Which of the following provides the most specific way of identifying a yeast as being Candida parapsilosis?

A) Creating a metabolic profile (based on the assimilation of various compounds as sole source of carbon or nitrogen, growth at various, temperatures etc.)
B) Failure to produce germ tubes
C) Formation of yeasts and pseudohyphae but no germ tubes in culture
D) Formation of yeasts in culture
E) Production of chlamydospores 

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI 135)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following correctly describes giardiasis (Giardia lamblia)?

A) Disease is caused by a fluke
B) Infection is transferred via the bite of ticks
C) It is typically associated with an acute diarrhea that resolves within 2 days
D) It is characterized by constipation
E) There is production of foul-smelling feces because of malabsorption 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 136)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following is correct concerning ascariasis (Ascaris lumbricoides)?

A) Only eggs in newly deposited human feces are infectious as, after 12 to 48 hours in the environment, the eggs will die
B) The adult is readily visible without the need of a magnifying glass or microscope
C) The eggs hatch in the small intestine and the larvae remain within the small and the large intestines while they fully mature into adults
D) The worm has a intermediate host which is a snail
E) All of the above are correct (A-D) 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 137)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following lays eggs in tunnels within the epidermis?

A) Crab louse
B) Head louse
C) Hookworm
D) Pinworm
E) Scabies mite 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 138)

 

Key Code: P

The major cause of inflammation and fibrosis in schistosomiasis caused by Schistosoma mansoni is a   reaction to:

A) adult flukes in blood vessels
B) blockage of blood vessels by proglottids
C) dead eggs in tissues
D) dead tissue which has accumulated because of the profound anemia leading to ineffective oxygenation
E) inability of schistosomula to mature following infection of humans 

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI 139)

 

Key Code: P

Many parasites can be detected by finding eggs in freshly obtained human feces.  For which of the following, is this an appropriate, and routinely applied, diagnostic method? (Choose the one best answer)

A) Crab lice
B) Filariasis
C) Pinworm
D) Schistosomiasis
E) Strongyloidiasis 
AB Trichinosis 

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 140)

 

Key Code: P, Key Code: I

Development of which of the following parasitic diseases (with its etiologic agent placed in parentheses) is usually UNACCOMPANIED by eosinophilia?

A) Ascariasis (Ascaris lumbricoides)
B) Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale or Necator americanus)
C) Liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica)
D) Pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis)
E) Trichinosis (Trichinella spiralis)

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 141)

 

Key Code: P

When parasitic larvae invade the wrong host, e.g. dog hookworms or bird schistosomes in humans, the host inflammatory reactions tend to be:

A) absent
B) weaker than when the equivalent human-specific parasite invades humans
C) of about the same intensity as that seen for when the equivalent human-specific parasite invades humans
D) stronger that that seen when the equivalent human-specific parasite invades humans 

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 142)

 

Key Code: I

Which of the following is NOT consistent with active SLE (systemic lupus erythematosis)?

A) Lower than normal levels of serum C3
B) Higher than normal levels of serum C4
C) Higher than normal levels of serum IgG
D) Presence of antibody that binds to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 143)

 

Key Code: I

The molecular target of the immune system in myasthenia gravis is:

A) desmoglein-3
B) the acetyl choline receptor
C) the insulin receptor
D) the platelet integrin gpIIG:IIIa 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 144)

 

Key Code: I

If a woman has myasthenia gravis and the disease is also seen in her newborn baby, what it the likely explanation?

A) Baby has generated an immune response which includes an autoimmune antibody
B) Maternal T lymphocytes have attacked the target for the autoimmune response within the baby
C) Maternal IgG has affected the target in the baby
D) The physostigmine treatment has caused side effects in the baby 
E) Antibodies in breast milk are causing the disease in the baby 

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI 145)

 

Key Code: M

Which one of the following would be an appropriate molecular clock for use when studying the phylogeny of BOTH bacteria and eukaryotes? Gene(s) encoding:

A) chitin synthetase
B) flagellin
C) peptidoglycan crosslinking enzymes
D) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase 
E) ribosomal RNA 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 146)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: N

Hematogenous (blood-borne) spread of T. pallidum from a chance throughout the body is characteristic of which stage of the disease syphilis?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 147)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following is correctly paired with its vector?

A) African trypanosomiasis,-louse
B) Ascaris,-reduviid bug
C) Chagas' disease,-tsetse fly
D) Malaria,-mosquito 
E) All of the above (A-D) are correctly paired

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 148)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following phenotypes is most strongly associated with enhanced resistance to falciparum malaria (malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum)?

A) Blood group A
B) Blood group O
C) Duffy-positive blood group
D) Having both hemoglobin A and hemoglobin S 
E) Very dark skin color

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 149)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following can produce hematuria in infected persons and can be diagnosed by finding eggs with terminal spines in the urine of infected persons?

A) Crab louse
B) Deer tick
C) Pinworm
D) Schistosoma haematobium 
E) Trypanosoma cruzi

Answer: D 

(Year Posted:UI 150)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following survives the pasteurization process of milk?

A) Brucella abortus
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Salmonella spp
D) Staphylococcus aureus 
E) None of the above (A-D)

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 151)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following food preparation methods is effective at preventing botulism?

A) Canning green beans in water within glass jars brought to 100ºC for 30 minutes
B) Including nitrites during curing of meat
C) Keeping baked potatoes at room temperature wrapped in foil so that air cannot bring in bacteria
D) Smothering herbs with olive oil and storing in an airtight jar 
E) All of the above (A-D)

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 152)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following is the best condition for using benzoic acid or sorbic acid in order to gain maximal antimicrobial activity?

A) At acidic pH as an ionized form
B) At acidic pH as an undissociated form
C) At alkaline pH as an ionized form
D) At alkaline pH as an undissociated form

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 153)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which is the best way to ensure all microbes are killed on surgical instruments?

A) Boiling at 100ºC for 30 minutes
B) Exposing instruments, wrapped in clear plastic bags, to u.v. light
C) Heating in an oven at 121ºC for 30 minutes
D) Heating in steam at 121ºC for 15 minutes

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 154)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following acts as an antiseptic/disinfectant by oxidizing molecules in microbes?

A) Bleach or hypochlorite
B) Isopropyl alcohol and/or 70% ethanol
C) Phenol
D) Soap

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI 155)

 

Key Code: B

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Listeria monocytogenes (listeriosis)?

A) Gram positive
B) Growth at 4°C
C) Infection in pregnant women can cause miscarriage
D) Infects via oral route
E) Resistant to pasteurization

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:  UI 156)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Triclosan targets the same bacterial enzyme as does:

A) isoniazid
B) penicillin
C) rifampicin
D) sulfonamides
E) vancomycin

Answer: A 

(Year Posted:  UI 157)

 

Key Code: B

In order to detect the Shiga-like toxins (SLTs) produced by E.coli O157:H7, filtrates of fecal material can be tested against Vero cells in tissue culture. A control is to incubate the Vero cells with filtrate that has been premixed with antiserum against the SLTs. The results of such a test are given below for studies on a fecal specimen.

Test

Results

Vero cells plus filtratecytotoxicity

Vero cells plus antiserumno cytotoxicity

Vero cells plus filtrate plus antiserumcytotoxicity

Vero cell plus bufferno cytotoxicity

A) a problem with the materials (Vero cells, buffer, or antiserum) or a technical error
B) no evidence for SLT in filtrate
C) presence of SLT in antiserum
D) presence of SLT in filtrate

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 158)

 

Key Code: B

Which of the following represents the main reservoir for Escherichia coli O157:H7?

A) Cattle
B) Fish from freshwater fish farms
C) Pigs
D) Poultry
E) Sheep

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI 159)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following is NOT killed by heating foods thoroughly so they reach the temperature of boiling water for at least 10 minutes? Therefore, the agent may still cause food poisoning if the cooked food is maintained at a slightly warm temperature.

A) Bacillus cereus
B) Campylobacter jejuni
C) Escherichia coli O157:H7
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E) Staphylococcus aureus
F) Taenia saginata (tapeworm) in beef

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI 160)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

The toxin formed by Clostridium botulinum:

A) is best produced in foods stored under acidic conditions, rather than at neutral pH
B) acts on peripheral nerve synapses
C) causes symptoms that mimic those seen with tetanus toxin
D) is found in significant levels in honey
E) its activity is blocked by antibody to the toxin produced by Clostridium tetani

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 161)

 

Key Code: P, Key Code: M, Key Code: N

Which of the following conditions is (are) associated with development of paralysis?

A) After ingestion of shellfish containing toxic dinoflagellates producing saxitoxin
B) Development of Reye's syndrome after aspirin use and influenza
C) Ingestion of foods containing botulinum toxin
D) Occasionally following tick exposure and tick attachment
E) All of the above (A-D)

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 162)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: N

The specimen showing the highest likelihood of a positive result for bacteria in a person with typhoid fever is:

A) blood
B) bone marrow
C) feces
D) sputum
E) urine

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 163)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

Which of the following is the best way to kill microbes, including Clostridium, in dried blood?

A) Heating to 121ºC in a dry oven for 30 min
B) Heating to 121ºC in steam for 30 min
C) Spraying with bleach
D) All (A-C) are equivalent
E) None of the above (A-D) are effective

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 164)

 

Key Code: B

What is the most common cause of meningitis among patients 18-50 years old?

A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI 165)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: I

To confirm the diagnosis of syphilis in a newborn baby, one needs to find:

A) IgG antibodies against Treponema pallidum in the baby
B) a positive culture of T. pallidum on blood agar
C) IgM antibodies against T. pallidum in the baby
D) rhinitis, rash and leukocytosis
E) evidence of child abuse

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI 166)

 

Key Code: B

Which of the following is consistent with syphilis acquired congenitally?

A) Mother is VDRL positive
B) Mother is RPR positive
C) Baby shows peeling of skin associated with a rash on the palms and sides
D) Spirochetes are visible in the placenta and umbilical cord tissues when they are stained by silver or visualized using dark field
E) All of the above (A-D)

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 167)

 

Key Code: B

Lancet-shaped Gram positive diplococci in the blood of a 75-year-old with pneumonia probably represent:

A) Candida albicans
B) Enterococcus species
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria meningitidis
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 168)

 

  Key Code: I

A 19-year-old African-American presents to her primary care physician with an extranodal mass involving the mandible. Biopsy revealed lymphoma cells with the following characteristics: germline TCR genes, sIgM-positive, sIgD-positive, CD19-positive. What normal cell component markers are most similar to those expressed by the lymphoma cell?

A) Pre-B cell
B) Immature B cell
C) Mature B cell
D) Pre-T cell
E) Immature T cell

Answer: C 

(Year Posted: UI 169)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: N

A nosocomial infection is defined as:

A) an infection of the inner chambers of the nose
B) being acquired in a hospital
C) being an infection that is described by a patient who has a morbid desire to be sick
D) an infection caused by a nosotoxin
E) an infection brought on by medical or surgical treatment

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 170)

Key Code: B, Key Code: N

A child with a stiff neck, high white cell count in the CSF, and a blood culture showing Gram negative bacteria that grow on chocolate agar but NOT on blood agar is likely to have meningitis caused by:

A) Group B streptococci
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Pneumocystis carinii
D) Rickettsia rickettsii
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 171)

 

Key Code: I

Which one of the following licensed vaccines is MOST LIKELY to elicit a T cell-dependent antibody response in a 13-month-old child?

A) Hepatitis B protein vaccine
B) Meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine group A
C) Meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine groups A, C, Y, and W-135 combined
D) Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine 

Answer: A 

(Year Posted:UI 172)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B

The catalase test is used to distinguish between:

A) Escherichia and Pseudomonas
B) Escherichia and Streptococcus
C) Pseudomonas and Staphylococcus
D) Pseudomonas and Streptococcus
E) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:UI 173)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: V

Which of the following procedures inactivate(s) prions?

A) Boiling in water
B) Filtering through air filters used for removing bacterial pathogens
C) X-irradiation doses suitable for inactivating parvovirus
D) All of the above (A-C)
E) None of the above (A-D) 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:UI 174)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: V, Key Code: N

In Britain, following the emergence of "mad cow disease," a variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD) was detected. This was considered a variant because, in contrast to the agent of conventional CJD, the etiologic agent of the variant CJD:

A) does not affect the brain
B) is characterized by the development of high antibody titers against the etiologic agent
C) is extremely common and, for a short period in the 1990's, was responsible for an annual death rate of 1 in 10,000 of the British adult human population
D) is not seen in people younger than 45 years old
E) produces a different pathological picture, when viewing microscope sections of the target organ 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:UI 175)

 

Key Code: V, Key Code: N

You determine that your patient has elevated liver function tests and icteric sclera (yellowing of the whites of the eye). The patient works as a garbage collector and has recently traveled abroad. You should diagnose:

A) ethanol abuse
B) hepatitis
C) hepatitis A virus infection
D) hepatitis B virus infection
E) yellow fever 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted:UI 176)

 

Key Code: V

Which of the following vaccines protects against infection by hepatitis D virus?  A vaccine against:

A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) HIV
E) None of the above (A-D) 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 177)

 

Key Code: V

To which of the following will a person develop antibody after immunization against hepatitis B virus?

A) HbcAg
B) HbeAg
C) HbsAg
D) All of the above (A-C)
E) None of the above (A-D) 

Answer: C 

(Year Posted:UI 178)

 

Key Code: I

In hemolytic disease of the newborn due to Rhesus incompatibility, the main way that red cells are destroyed is by:

A) complement-mediated lysis initiated via the alternative pathway
B) complement-mediated lysis initiated via the classical pathway
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) NK cells
E) opsonophagocytosis involving macrophages 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:  UI 179)

 

Key Code: I

A woman has a miscarriage after 3 months of pregnancy. She states that she does not know who the father was but you are concerned that fetal red cells may sensitize her to Rhesus antigen. Although more than one answer may be possible, which combination of ABO and Rh blood groups carried by the woman carries the most risk for her sensitization against Rhesus antigen.  The woman is:

A) O Rh-
B) A Rh+
C) AB Rh-
D) AB Rh+
E) O Rh+ 

Answer: C 

(Year Posted:UI 180)

 

Key Code: I

The genes responsible for the antigenic epitopes of blood group antigens AB(O)H and I and i (cold agglutinin epitopes) directly encode:

A) carbohydrates
B) glycolipids
C) glycosyl transferases
D) lipases
E) peptidyl transferases 

Answer: C 

(Year Posted:UI 181)

 

Key Code: I

In order to prevent Rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn developing in babies that are at risk because of the parents' blood group types, to whom and at what time should Rhogam (anti-Rhesus) be administered?

A) The baby should be transfused once with Rhogam in utero as soon as the procedure is feasible
B) The mother should receive it around the beginning of the third trimester and again within 3 days of birth
C) The mother should receive it before the first pregnancy and again as soon as she knows she is pregnant
D) The mother should receive it immediately after the baby is born and then again within about 2-3 weeks
E) The newborn baby should receive it within 24 hours of delivery 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 182)

 

Key Code: I

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is generally caused by antibodies from two isotypes. These are IgG and:

A) IgA
B) IgC
C) IgD
D) IgE
E) IgM 

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:UI 183)

 

Key Code: I

The indirect Coombs' test  (indirect antiglobulin test) typically uses:

A) patient's red cells to see if IgG is bound to them
B) patient's red cells to see if immunoglobulin is bound to them
C) patient's serum to see if it forms a precipitate with donor plasma
D) patient's serum to see if it contains antibodies that bind to a variety of reagent red cells
E) patient's serum to see if it contains antibodies that bind to the patient's red cells 

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 184)

 

Key Code: I

Which of the following products should usually be employed to transfuse an anemic immunocompromised patient?

A) Fresh frozen plasma
B) Irradiated leukocyte-reduced blood
C) Leukocyte-reduced blood
D) Whole blood 

Answer: B 

(Year Posted:UI 185)

 

Key Code: B

Tetracycline (doxycycline) is not used to treat gonorrhea in spite of its value for treating chlamydial   infections. Which of the following is a reason NOT to use doxycyline?

A) Doxycycline acts to induce gonococcal arthritis
B) Neisseria species are inherently not susceptible to doxycycline
C) The drug must be injected intramuscularly on 4 occasions during a 10-day treatment period
D) The infection will clear up naturally and then people no longer remain infected 
E) While most strains are susceptible, some are resistant

Answer: E  

(Year Posted:UI 186)

 

Key Code: I, Key Code: B

Examine the following table that shows skin test results obtained for an HIV-infected adult

Injected material

48-hour skin test result

30-minute skin test result

SalineNegativeNegative

HistamineNegative (faint)Positive

PPDNegativeNegative

Candida antigenNegativeNegative

Mumps antigenNegativeNegative

Tetanus toxoidNegativeNegative

Assuming there is nothing wrong with the antigens and reagents, these data show that the patient:

A) does not have TB
B) may have TB
C) has TB

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 187)

 

Key Code: M, Key Code: B, Key Code: P

The acid fast stain can be employed to detect all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Cryptosporidium species
B) Mycobacterium species
C) Nocardia species
D) Staphylococcus species

Answer: D 

(Year Posted:  UI 188)

 

Key Code: B

Within the USA, which of the following describes most of those persons who are newly found to be PPD-positive but do NOT have active tuberculosis?  Most:

A) have been infected, but now have eliminated Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) remain infected asymptomatically
C) have no risk of developing active tuberculosis
D) are highly contagious and so should be treated with antimycobacterial drugs
E) All of the above (A-D)

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 189)

 

Key Code: F

What is the first-line drug therapy used for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?

A) amphotericin B
B) 5-fluorocytosine
C) fluconazole
D) foscarnet
E) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Answer: E 

(Year Posted:UI 190)

 

Key Code: F

What is the most reliable way of detecting Pneumocystis carinii as causing a pneumonia in AIDS?

A) Blood smear
B) Bronchoalveolar lavage
C) Culture on blood agar
D) Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen agar
E) Culture on Sabouraud agar

Answer: B 

(Year Posted:  UI 191)

 

Key Code: B

When comparing the number of bacteria/ml of blood from AIDS patients with Mycobacterium avium bacteremia with the number of bacteria/ml of blood from patients with sepsis caused by Gram-negative rods:

A) there are far more M. avium/ml
B) there are equivalent numbers of bacteria/ml in both types of patient
C) there are far less M. avium/ml

Answer: A 

(Year Posted: UI 192)

 

Key Code: B

Mycobacterium avium is found in all organs of the body but, in sections observed by histology, the largest numbers are found in:

A) cardiac muscle
B) central nervous
C) prostate
D) reticuloendothelial system (liver and bone marrow)

Answer: D 

(Year Posted: UI 193)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: V, Key Code: P

For which of the following agents of sexually transmitted diseases is treatment with metronidazole routinely employed?

A) Chlamydia
B) Herpes simplex virus type II
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 194)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: I

Approximately how long does it take after primary infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis before a typical immunocompetent person will show a positive PPD test? (This is not referring to the length of time the skin test takes between injection of PPD and the development of the reaction)

A) 12 hours
B) 3 days
C) 1 week
D) 3-9 weeks
E) 4 months - 1 year

Answer: D 

(Year Posted:  UI 195)

 

Key Code: B

For a PPD test given to an immunocompetent person, what is INCORRECT?

A) a 15-mm induration is a positive reaction
B) the antigen is an attenuated Mycobacterium tuberculosis strain (Pasteur-derived D107)
C) the antigen is injected intradermally
D) the result should help determine whether a young person should receive INH prophylaxis
E) the test should be read 48-72 hours after injection

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 196)

 

Key Code: M

How many 27-nm diameter viral particles, if placed in a line, would make up the length of a small Gram negative rod that is 2.7-um (micrometer) long?

A) 10
B) 100
C) 1,000
D) 10,000
E) 100,000
F) 1,000,000
G) 10,000,000
H) 10,000,000,000

Answer: B 

(Year Posted: UI 197)

 

Key Code: M

 

A Kirby Bauer assay is used to determine the susceptibility of a bacterium to antibiotics X, Y and Z to decide on treatment.  On the basis of the results shown, which is correct?

A) The patient should NOT be treated with X
B) The patient should be treated with Y and Z
C) The patient should be treated with Y or Z
D) The patient should be treated with X
E) Not enough data have been given to decide on treatment

Answer: E 

(Year Posted: UI 198)

 

Key Code: M

While working in the ER, a resident did a Gram stain of  a blood sample from a suspected case of bacterial meningitis. During the staining procedure he forgot to decolorize with alcohol prior to adding the safranin counterstain. If the meningitis is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae the bacteria seen on the resident's slide will appear

A) red
B) purple
C) colorless
D) green
E) orange

Answer: B 

(Year Posted:UI 199)

 

Key Code: M

The major components of bacterial cells  can be separated  from one another by a variety of cell fractionation techniques. When this is done, the major parts of the electron transport system are found in

A) cell walls
B) outer membranes
C) nuclear remnants
D) cytoplasmic membranes
E) cytoplasm
F) peptidoglycan
G) capsules

Answer: D 

(Year Posted:UI 200)