Multiple Choice Questions 601-700

 

Key Code: N

A 63-year-old woman who lives alone and has not been in a hospital for eight years presented with fever, chills, and moderately lower blood pressure than usual. She experienced three days of urinary symptoms including frequency, urgency, and dysuria. Urinalysis reveals greater than 100 WBC per high power field. A Gram-stained smear of uncentrifuged urine reveals PMNs and Gram-negative bacilli. Appropriate therapy for the presumed pyelonephritis with bacteremia might include all but which one of the following treatment regimens?

A) Aztreonam and gentamicin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Ceftizoxime and gentamicin
D) Vancomycin and clindamycin
E) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX)

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  601)

 

Key Code: N

A 60-year-old man with mitral valve endocarditis has blood cultures from admission that are positive for Enterococcus faecalis exhibiting high-level resistance to gentamicin but to no other anti-enterococcal agent. Appropriate therapy for this infection would be high-dose ampicillin

A) Alone
B) Plus adjunctive tobramycin
C) Plus adjunctive streptomycin
D) Plus ciprofloxacin
E) Plus vancomycin

Answer: C

(Year Posted:UI  602)

 

Key Code: N

A 20-year-old man presents with a two-day history of urethral pain and purulent discharge. He had had similar symptoms one year earlier, and had undergone antibiotic treatment. A Gram-stained smear of purulent urethral discharge reveals many PMNs, some of which are full of kidney-shaped Gram-negative diplococci. In addition to treatment with a single high dose of oral azithromycin for possible concomitant infection with Chlamydia trachomatis, appropriate therapy would include

A) One dose of IM cefazolin followed by oral cephalexin for one week
B) One dose of IV vancomycin
C) Oral clindamycin for one week
D) One dose of IM gentamicin
E) One dose of IM ceftriaxone

Answer: E

(Year Posted: UI  603)

 

Key Code: N

A 60-year-old man is being treated for nosocomial pneumonia with tobramycin and piperacillin. Tobramycin peak and trough blood levels are ordered. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Trough concentrations should not be drawn, they are not important since tobramycin is a concentration-dependent bactericidal drug
B) Peak concentrations, if drawn while the distribution phase is still predominant, will result in falsely elevated values
C) Peak and trough concentrations can be drawn within 2-3 hours of each other and will not adversely affect any of the other calculated pharmacokinetic parameters such as half-life
D) Peak concentrations, if drawn while the distribution phase is still predominant, will result in falsely low values

Answer: B

(Year Posted: UI  604)

 

Key Code: P

This extracellular pathogen causes pneumonia in immunosuppressed patients

A) Mycobacterium avium
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Pneumocystis carinii
D) Toxoplasma gondii
E) Acanthamoeba

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  605)

 

Key Code: P

An outbreak of a diarrheal illness accompanied by severe vomiting is recently detected among 5 children at a local day care center. It is suspected that the culprit of this outbreak is Giardia lamblia. How can this diagnosis be confirmed?

A) detection of sporozoites in fecal specimens
B) detection of trophozoites in fecal specimens
C) detection of amastigotes in fecal specimens
D) detection of cysts in fecal specimens
E) detection of trypomastigotes in fecal specimens

Answer: D

(Year Posted:  UI  606)

 

Key Code: P

Questions refer to the following case

A 27 year old woman returned from a vacation in Chile with chills and fever, generalized lymphadenopathy and a unilateral conjunctivitis (Romana's sign). She failed to seek medical attention at that time. Six months later she suffered a fatal heart attack. Post mortem examination of her heart muscle revealed the presence of amastigotes. The patient most likely suffered from

A) Chagas diseae
B) Lymphatic filariasis
C) Schistosomiasis
D) Leishmaniasis
E) Toxoplasmosis

Answer: A

This disease is transmitted by the

A) Sandly
B) Anopheles mosquito
C) Tsetse fly
D) Black fly
E) Reduviid bug

Answer: E

(Year Posted: UI  607)

 

Key Code: P

Infection from Toxoplasma gondii can occur by

A) mosquito bite
B) skin penetration by larvae
C) eating undercooked pork or mutton
D) sexual transmission
E) sandfly bite

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  608)

 

Key Code: P

Questions refers to the following case

A City College graduate student spent her summer in Uganda collecting sera samples from patients infected with HIV. Two weeks after returning to City College with the specimens, she developed periodic episodes of high fever and chills that continued for several weeks before she went to see her physician. Physical examination revealed hypotension, white pallor, and splenomegaly. Laboratory tests revealed thrombocytopenia and marked anemia. Giemsa staining of peripheral blood smears revealed exclusively ring-infected erythrocytes

What is the likely causative agent of this student's symptoms?

A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Plasmodium falciparum
C) Trypanosoma cruzii
D) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
E) Leishmania tropica
F) Leishmania donovani

Answer: B

How many people worldwide get infected with this organism?

A) 300 million
B) 2 million
C) 300,000
D) 17 million

Answer: A

Which of the following is the infective form of this parasite?

A) Trophozoite
B) Cyst
C) Egg
D) Sporozoite
E) Amastigote

Answer: D

What is the definitive host (species in which parasite reproduces sexually) for this parasite?

A) Sandfly
B) Anopheles mosquito
C) Tsetse fly
D) Black fly
E) Human

Answer: B

An effective treatment is

A) Mefloquine
B) Mebendazole
C) Metronidazole
D) Melarsoprol
E) Nifurtimox

Answer: A

(Year Posted: UI  609)

 

Key Code: P

Questions refers to the following case

A 32 year old male from Ghana visiting the United States goes to see a physician complaining of pruritus (itching) of the skin and visual problems. A physical examination reveals subcutaneous nodules and ocular lesions

A diagnosis should be established by

A) Stool examination
B) Serology
C) Examination of the peripheral blood smear
D) Skin snip or biopsy
E) Urine examination

Answer: D

The likely diagnosis is

A) Taenia saginata
B) Taenia solium
C) Schistosoma japonicum
D) Trichinella spiralis
E) Onchocerca volvulus

Answer: E

The treatment of choice for this patient should be

A) Metronidazole
B) Ivermectin
C) Praziquantel
D) Mebendazole
E) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

Answer: B

(Year Posted: UI  610)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following phenotypes is most strongly associated with enhanced resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum?

A) Blood group A
B) Blood group O
C) Duff-positive blood group
D) Having both hemoglobin A and hemoglobin S
E) Very dark skin color

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  611)

 

Key Code: P

Toxoplasmosis and Chagas' disease share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A) Pyrimethamine is an effective drug for this disease
B) Intracellular stages of these parasites are seen in humans
C) Congenital transmission occurs
D) Encephalitis occurs in AIDS patients
E) Transmission can occur by organ transplantation

Answer: A

(Year Posted:  UI  612)

 

Key Code: P

Questions refers to the following case

A 37 year old Ethiopian male refugee who had escaped from Ethiopia on foot across the mountains to the Sudan presents to the hospital with a several week history of fever and weight loss. He has been in the U.S. for 15 months. Before arriving in the U.S. he spent several months in a refugee camp in the Sudan. Multiple blood smears for malaria were negative, as were blood cultures. Chest X-ray was normal. The patient had a negative PPD (skin test) and cellular immunity was depressed. It was noted that he had splenomegaly, anemia and fever

Based on the travel history which disease would NOT be on your initial diagnostic list

A) Visceral leishmaniasis
B) Chagas' disease
C) Amebiasis
D) Schistosomiasis
E) Malaria

Answer: B

The etiologic agent is most likely

A) Pneumocystis carinii
B) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Leishmania guyanensis
D) Schistosoma mansoni
E) Leishmania donovani

Answer: E

Disease transmission is by the

A) Snail
B) Black fly
C) Anopheles mosquito
D) Tsetse fly
E) Sandfly

Answer: E

On stool examination this patient also has Entamobea histolytica trophozoites and hookworm eggs. Treatment for this patient for these additional organisms would include

A) Quinacrine and Mebendazole
B) Mebendazole and Praziquantel
C) Praziquantel and Metronidazole
D) Metronidazole and Mebendazole
E) Quinacrine and Metronidazole

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  613)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following correctly describes giardiasis (Giardia lamblia)?

A) Disease is caused by a fluke
B) Infection is transferred via the bite of ticks
C) It is typically associated with an acute diarrhea that resolves with in two days
D) It is characterized by constipation
E) There is production of foul-smelling feces because of malabsorption

Answer: E

(Year Posted:  UI  614)

 

Key Code: P

A high school student visited her ophthalmologist with complaints of severe eye pain. Upon examination she was observed to have uveitis and corneal ulcerations. She had been wearing soft contact lenses for the past 3 years. A corneal biopsy was done which revealed the presence of this organism

A) Acanthamoeba
B) Entamoeba histolytica
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) Toxoplasma gondii
E) Naegleria

Answer: A

(Year Posted: UI  615)

 

Key Code: P

The major cause of inflammation and fibrosis in schistosomiasis caused by Schistosoma mansoni is a reaction to

A) Adult flukes in blood vessels
B) Blockage of blood vessels by proglottids
C) Dead eggs in tissues
D) Calcified cysticerci
E) Encysted larvae

Answer: C

(Year Posted:UI  616)

 

Key Code: P

A skin biopsy taken from the lesion of an individual with mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is most likely to show

A) Flagellated promastigotes in red blood cells
B) Schizonts in the blood
C) Amastigotes in phagocytes
D) Merozoites in phagocytes
E) Trypomastigotes in the blood

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  617)

 

Key Code: P

In congenital toxoplasmosis the risk of disease is as follows

A) Lowest risk of infection being transmitted to the baby is in the last trimester and such children are usually asymptomatic at birth
B) Lowest risk of infection being transmitted to the baby is in the first trimester and such children are likely to be symptomatic at birth
C) The risk of infection is equal in all trimesters but severity of disease is higher in the first trimester
D) Highest risk of infection being transmitted to the baby is in the last trimester and such children are usually symptomatic at birth
E) Highest risk of infection being transmitted to the baby is in the first trimester but severity of infection is equal in all trimesters

Answer: B

(Year Posted: 2001 UI  618)

 

Key Code: P

A two year old child presents with intestinal obstruction. A likely parasitic cause is

A) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Trichuris trichuria
E) Wuchereria bancrofti

Answer: A

(Year Posted: UI  619)

 

Key Code: P

What test would NOT be useful in the diagnosis of Pneumocystosis in an AIDS patient

A) Chest X-ray
B) Arterial blood gas
C) Monoclonal antibody stain of induced sputum
D) Blood smear for parasites
E) Lung biopsy

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  620)

 

Key Code: P

After eating sushi every Sunday evening for dinner, a City College student begins to notice weight loss despite a normal appetite, accompanied by occasional abdominal cramping and vomiting. Following a medical exam, a sample of the student's stool is sent out for laboratory diagnosis and microscopic examination reveals the presence of eggs. The most likely diagnosis is infection with

A) Taenia saginata
B) Taenia solium
C) Schistosoma japonicum
D) Diphyllobothrium latum
E) Trichinella spiralis

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  621)

 

Key Code: P

Onchocerciasis is acquired by the bite of an infected

A) Tsetse fly
B) Black fly
C) Sandfly
D) Mosquito
E) Tick

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  622)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the drugs below is used in treatment of trypanosomiasis, especially late stage with CNS involvement?

A) Pentamidine
B) Chloroquine
C) Melarsoprol
D) Pyramethamine
E) Flagyl

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  623)

 

Key Code: P

A 45 year-old female botanist from the Bronx Botanical Garden returned from an orchid collecting trip in the Amazon. She sought medical attention for a non-healing ulcer of the left tibia. On physical examination an ulcer is present with several satellite lesions surrounding it. What is the treatment of choice?

A) Praziquantil
B) Topical thiabendazole
C) Pentavalent antimony
D) Ivermectin
E) Metronidazole

Answer: C

(Year Posted:UI  624)

 

Key Code: P

A diagnosis cannot usually be established by examination of the stool in persons infected with

A) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Taenia saginata
D) Schistosoma mansoni
E) Onchocerca volvulus

Answer: E

(Year Posted:UI  625)

Key Code: P

The mode of transmission of Strongyloides stercoralis is

A) egg penetration of skin
B) larvae penetration of skin
C) fecal-oral (eggs in feces)
D) fecal-oral (larvae in feces)
E) eating uncooked pork

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  626)

 

Key Code: P

Which of the following requires no intermediate host?

A) Schistosoma mansoni
B) Plasmodium falciparum
C) Leishmania donovani
D) Giardia lamblia
E) Trypanosoma brucei

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  627)

 

Key Code: P

The stage of Schistosoma that is infectious to humans is the

A) trophozoite
B) cyst
C) egg
D) cercariae
E) larva

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  628)

 

Key Code: P

Two months after returning from a trip to the Dominican Republic, a 9-year old boy developed a febrile illness with symptoms including, headache, abdominal pain, blood in the stool and granulomatous lesions of the stomach. Oval shaped eggs with a sharp lateral spine, found in the feces of this patient confirmed the following diagnosis

A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Wucheria bancrofti
C) Enterobius vermicularis
D) Schistosoma japonicum
E) Schistosoma mansoni

Answer: E

(Year Posted: UI  629)

 

Key Code: P

A nematode that has been shown to cause chronic anemia in children in the southern part of the United States is

A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Necator americanus
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Ancylostoma duodenale
E) Trichuris trichuria

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  630)

 

Key Code: P

A 44 year old man went on a business trip to Spain. At a banquet he was served steak tartare (raw beef) a traditional dish in that region. Three months later he noticed thin, white, rectangular segments (proglottids) in his stool. These were likely diagnostic for

A) Trichinella spiralis
B) Echinococcosis granulosus
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Taenia saginata
E) Taenia solium

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  631)

 

Key Code: P

Kala-Azar in AIDS patients in Europe and the United States is most likely

A) Due to reactivation of a latent infection
B) Due to recent infective mosquito bite
C) A consequence of sexual activity
D) Due to direct contact with ulcerated cutaneous lesions
E) Caused by the ingestion of cysts found in water

Answer: A

(Year Posted: UI  632)

 

Key Code: P

Plasmodium vivax invades

A) Only reticulocytes (young red blood cells)
B) Young and old red blood cells
C) Old red blood cells
D) All ages of red blood cells
E) Both platelets (macrokaryocytes) and red blood cells

Answer: A

(Year Posted:  UI  633)

 

Key Code: P

Development of which of the following parasitic diseases is usually unaccompanied by eosinophilia?

A) Ascariasis (Ascaris lumbricoides)
B) Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale or Necator americanus)
C) Liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica)
D) Pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis)
E) Trichinosis (Trichinella spiralis)

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  634)

 

Key Code: P

American Trypanosomiasis is produced by the following parasite

A) Trypanosoma cruzi
B) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D) Leishmania donovani
E) Leishmania tropica

Answer: A

(Year Posted:  UI  635)

 

Key Code: P

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by the

A) Tsetse fly
B) Black fly
C) Anopheles mosquito
D) Sand fly
E) Reduviid bug

Answer: E

(Year Posted: UI  636)

 

Key Code: P

You are called by the mother of a 3 year-old child who is concerned because she found a "worm" on the bed of her child. On further questioning she informs you her son has been waking at night with nightmares and complains of anal itching. Appropriate diagnostic testing would be

A) Check stool for eggs
B) Perform a scotch tape test
C) Perform an acid fast smear on stool
D) Do a string test or duodenal aspiration
E) Therapeutic trial of metronidazole

Answer: B

(Year Posted: UI  637)

 

Key Code: P

Questions refer to the following case

A 26 year old male prostitute presented to Harlem Hospital with a history of a recent seizure. Past history is significant for intravenous drug use and several episodes of venereal disease. He has traveled outside the United States to Puerto Rico. A CT scan of the head demonstrated cysts in the brain

What is the most likely etiologic agent

A) Schistosoma mansoni
B) Toxoplasma gondii
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) Entamoeba histolytica
E) Giardia lamblia

Answer: B

What is the most likely way that he contracted this parasitic disease?

A) Eating raw fish
B) Walking barefoo
C) Wading in rivers in Puerto Rico
D) Ingesting food contaminated with human feces
E) Eating undercooked meat

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  638)

 

Key Code: P

A 23 year old medical student returns from a trip to Thailand where he visited refugee camps along the Cambodian border. Five days later on his return to New York he develops high fevers and disorientation. He is admitted to intensive care in a coma. The agent that is the most likely cause of this problem is

A) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
B) Leishmania donovan
C) Plasmodium falciparum
D) Toxoplasma gondii
E) Entamoeba histolytica

Answer: C

(Year Posted:UI  639)

 

Key Code: P

A characteristic symptom of Wuchereria bancrofti is

A) Bladder carcinoma
B) Encephalitis
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Sepsis
E) Abdominal pain and diarrhea

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  640)

 

Key Code: P

The following syndrome is caused by Trypanosoma gambiense

A) malaria
B) Chagas disease
C) Sleeping sickness
D) River blindness
E) Lyme disease

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  641)

 

Key Code: P

The following case summary is to be used for following questions

A 26 year old graduate student returned from Los Cabos, Mexico where he had lived for the past 6 months while studying the behavioral characteristics of sheep. Within one month following his return to New York, he developed a cough which, on multiple occasions, resulted in hemoptysis. Physical exam revealed that he was essentially normal. A radiograph was ordered and revealed a unilateral cystic mass. A follow-up bronchoscopy indicated the presence of a mucus plug. A CT scan indicated that the mass was fliud-filled (see figure)

 

The patient should be tested further for

A) Hydataid disease
B) Chagas Disease
C) P. carinii pneumonia
D) Ascariasis

Answer: A

What serologic test would you use to confirm your diagnosis?

A) ELISA to test for antibodies to PCP
B) Immunoblot assay to test for IgG antibodies against echonococcal antigens
C) Western assay to confirm the presence of antibodies against trophozoites
D) ELISA to test for IgM against Trypanosoma cruzi

Answer: B

(Year Posted:  UI  642)

 

Key Code: V

A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months ago after drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HbsAg, antibodies to HbsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however she is positive for IgM Hb core antibody. The nurse

A) does not have hepatitis B
B) has hepatitis A
C) is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
D) is in the "window" stage of hepatitis B infection
E) has hepatitis C

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  643)

 

Key Code: V

A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with hepatitis A virus (HAV) such as nausea, anorexia, and vomiting, but no diarrhea yet all the tests for HAV-IgG and HAV-IgM are nonreactive. A possible cause of this infection is

A) hepatitis B surface antigen
B) hepatitis C
C) hepatitis D
D) hepatitis E
E) rotavirus
F) coinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis D

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  644)

 

Key Code: V

A 3-year old child presents at the physician's office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik's spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?

A) Adenovirus
B) Herpesvirus
C) Picornavirus
D) Orthomyxovirus
E) Paramyxovirus

Answer: E

(Year Posted:  UI  645)

 

Key Code: V

New and effective antiviral compounds are in development and many have been in use for about a decade. One such compound is ribavirin, a synthetic nucleoside structurally related to guanosine. Ribavirin therapy has been most successfully used against

A) parvovirus
B) rhinovirus
C) herpes simplex virus
D) respiratory syncytial virus
E) group A coxsackie virus

Answer: D

(Year Posted:  UI  646)

 

Key Code: V

Erythema infectiosum (Fifth disease), a self-limiting disease of children, is caused by

A) Measles
B) Parvovirus
C) Rubella
D) Human Herpesvirus 6
E) Norwalk virus
F) Coronavirus

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  647)

 

Key Code: V

An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in the 18th week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella vaccination. The best immediate course of action is to

A) terminate the pregnancy
B) order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
C) reassure her because rubella is not a problem until after the 30th week
D) administer rubella immune globulin
E) administer rubella vaccine

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  648)

 

Key Code: V

Which of the following is a property of virally transformed cells in tissue culture?

A) formation of monolayers in culture flasks
B) dependence on higher serum concentrations in growth media
C) absence of viral genomes
D) growth of colonies in soft agar
E) stimulation of acute inflammation

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  649)

 

Key Code: V

A population of mouse cells in culture is infected with a mouse retrovirus at a high multiplicity of infection. Among the infected cells, only about 1 cell in 10 million cells exhibits characteristics of a transformed cell. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for the viral transformation of the mouse cells in this case?

A) insertional activation of a cellular proto-oncogene
B) expression of a viral oncogene
C) cellular mutation by insertion of the virus into a coding sequence
D) stimulation of cellular replication by a viral replication gene
E) translocation between two chromosomes

Answer: A

(Year Posted:UI  650)

Key Code: V

Use the following scenario to answer questions

A 10-year-old boy was sent home from school due to pain on both sides of the parotid area while eating lunch. The swelling of the glands increased in 2 to 3 days while he remained home. He complained of a headache and had a low-grade fever. This child had not received all the required vaccinations. The teacher reported that one of the other students in the classroom had had similar complaints three weeks earlier

The disease is diagnosed as

A) Measles
B) Common cold
C) Influenza
D) Mumps
E) Infectious mononucleosis

Answer: D

The virus that caused this illness

A) has a DNA genome
B) is bullet shaped
C) is brick shaped
D) contains RNA with a helical conformation
E) is complex with a helical tail and icosahedral capsid

Answer: D

The initial replication with this virus takes place in the

A) upper respiratory tract
B) villi of the small intestine
C) colonic mucosa
D) brain meninges
E) parotid gland

Answer: A

(Year Posted:UI  651)

 

Key Code: V

A poliovirus type 2 has been isolated from the stool of a 60-year-old patient who has been clinically diagnosed as having poliomyelitis. There have been no previous cases of polio reported; however an infant grandchild was vaccinated about three weeks prior to onset of the disease. How can the laboratory determine whether the isolated virus is related to the vaccine strain or is a wild-type virus?

A) inoculate the virus into mice to determine if it kills them
B) inoculate into several kinds of tissue culture to determine the host range
C) do neutralization studies using the infant's serum
D) stain the virus with fluorescent antibody
E) determine the nucleic acid sequence of the unknown virus

Answer: E

(Year Posted:UI  652)

 

Key Code: V

A 6 year-old girl is coughing, has nasal congestion, fever, headache, chills, and muscular pains that have been attributed to a viral infection. Electron microscope examination of throat washings show a virus with an icosahedral array of capsomers and fibers projecting from the vertices. This child is most likely suffering from a respiratory illness caused by

A) influenza virus
B) parainfluenza virus
C) adenovirus
D) coronavirus
E) rhinovirus

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  653)

 

Key Code: V

Refer to the case description below to answer questions

A 32 year-old man developed symptoms consisting of headache, fatigue, general achiness and a distinct chill. Severe muscular aches ensued and his temperature rose to 103o F on the following day. Laryngitis, cough, and substernal soreness were noted. Physical examination revealed a slight tachycardia and slightly lower than normal blood pressure. The lymphoid follicles of the soft palate were enlarged and the nasal mucous membrane appeared bright red with areas of hemorrhage. The patient complained of loss of appetite and experienced a sense of fatigue and weakness

The most likely cause of this illness is

A) rhinovirus
B) influenza virus
C) respiratory syncytial virus
D) parainfluenza virus
E) coronavirus

Answer: B

The most common complication of the disease is

A) secondary pneumonia
B) otitis media
C) hepatitis
D) myocarditis
E) meningoencephalitis

Answer: A

A therapy for some forms of this illness is

A) acyclovir
B) sulfonamides
C) amantidine
D) ribavirin
E) penicillin

Answer: C

It is suspected that the emergence of primary epidemic forms of this pathogen is the consequence of

A) changes in the major antigenic determinant
B) aerosol transmission
C) fomite transmission
D) insect bites
E) body fluid exchange
F) error prone replication

Answer: A

(Year Posted: UI  654)

 

Key Code: V

Refer to the case description below to answer questions

An unvaccinated 12-year-old child has developed a sudden chill, followed by sneezing and coughing; her eyes are red and she is running a temperature. A faint and scattered rash is noticed but a physician is not yet notified. Four days after the onset of the child's illness, the fever and cough have grown steadily worse and a distinct rash appears on the forehead. When the child is seen by a physician the following day, the exanthem is widespread and maculopapular in appearance. The rash disappears on pressure. The patient is also found to be suffering from conjunctivitis with photophobia.

The disease is diagnosed as

A) measles
B) exanthem subitum
C) hemorrhagic fever
D) erythema infectiosum
E) vaccinia

Answer: A

The most serious complication of this disease is

A) pneumonia
B) encephalitis
C) cardiomegaly
D) epilepsy
E) deafness

Answer: B

The disease is particularly infective during the

A) prodromal stage
B) latter stages of rash persistence
C) earliest stages of rash
D) 2-4 days after the onset of the rash

Answer: A

The live attenuated vaccine for this illness

A) produces an effective and enduring immunity in greater then 70% of susceptible individuals
B) is at best 50% effective
C) produces an effective and enduring immunity in greater then 95% of susceptible individuals
D) occasionally produces typical disease symptoms

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  655)

 

Key Code: V

Refer to the case description below to answer questions

A newborn baby is referred to the pediatrician for further evaluation of an unusually small head, low birth weight, and an extensive erythematous rash. Physical examination indicates microcephaly, chorioretinitis, mild icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, and sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear. Cells in the urine were found to have large "owl's eye" intranuclear inclusions. The child's mother experienced a "flulike" episode during the first trimester of pregnancy

The virus likely to be the cause of these congenital symptoms is a member of which viral family?

A) Adenoviridae
B) Papovaviridae
C) Hepadnaviridae
D) Retroviridae
E) Herpesviridae

Answer: E

The type of nuclear inclusion observed in the cells derived from the urine is indicative of which specific virus?

A) polyoma
B) hepatitis B
C) HIV
D) cytomegalovirus
E) Epstein-Barr virus

Answer: D

This virus is also the causative agent of

A) retinitis
B) infectious mononucleosis
C) CD4 T-cell deficiency
D) CD8 T-cell deficiency
E) Burkitt's lymphoma

Answer: A

(Year Posted: UI  656)

 

Key Code: V

Use the case description below to answer questions

A 77-year-old woman came to her physician complaining of severe headaches and a constant tremor in her right hand. She appeared dull, unenthusiastic and had difficulty understanding questions. One month later, she exhibited obvious memory loss and was often confused. Three months more, she was in a coma-like state noted for occasional spontaneous clonic switching of the arms and legs with a startle myoclonic jerking response elicited by loud noises. One month later, she died. Official cause of death was pneumonia. Upon autopsy there were no gross abnormalities noted. Astrocytic gliosis of the cerebral cortex with fibrils and intracellular vacuolation were observed microscopically throughout the cerebral cortex. Evidence of swelling and inflammation were not seen

Which of the following offers the best description of the infectious process that led to this patient's death?

A) reactivation of herpes virus and extension to the CNS
B) colonization of the upper respiratory tract with N. meningitidis and extension to the CNS
C) formation of filaments formed by association of an abnormal form of a cellular protein
D) replication in the CNS of a defective form of Measles virus
E) colonization of the CNS by an encapsulated yeast

Answer: C

Of the following, which would have the highest likelihood as the cause of this patient's pneumonia?

A) Influenza virus
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Respiratory syncytial virus
D) Bordetella pertussis
E) Norwalk agent
F) Staphylococcus epidermidis

Answer: B

Which one of the following diseases is caused by an agent similar to the cause of this patient's illness?

A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (sspe)
B) malignant glioma
C) kuru
D) progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy (PML)

Answer: C

(Year Posted:UI  657)

 

Key Code: V

Increased vaccination rates with which of the following vaccines will likely be followed by decreased cancer incidence?

A) Inactivated influenza
B) Live attenuated measles
C) Recombinant hepatitis B surface antigen
D) Live attenuated hepatitis A virus
E) Live attenuated polio virus

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  658)

 

Key Code: V

The antigens and antibody below are associated with hepatitis. For each, choose the description with which it is most likely to be associated

A) Is usually the first viral marker detected in blood after HBV infection
B) May be the only detectable serologic marker during the early convalescent phase of an HBV infection ("window phase")
C) Appears in the blood soon after infection, rises to very high concentrations, and falls rapidly with the onset of hepatic disease
D) Is found within the nuclei of infected hepatocytes and not generally in the peripheral circulation
E) Closely associated with hepatitis B infectivity and DNA polymerase activity

_C_ HbeAg
_A_ HbsAg
_D_ HbcAg
_B_ Anti-HBc


(Year Posted: UI  659)

 

Key Code: V

For each of the viruses below choose the description with which it is most likely to be associated

A) Leading cause of congenital malformations
B) Causes orchitis which can occasionally result in sterility
C) Causes pneumonia, primarily in infants
D) Causes encephalitis (killed vaccine available)
E) Causes the common cold

_D_ Rabies
_E_ Rhinovirus
_A_ Cytomegalovirus
_C_ Respiratory syncytial virus
_B_ Mumps

(Year Posted: UI  660)

 

Key Code: V

For each of the preparations listed below, choose the virus to which it most likely related

A) Yellow fever virus
B) Influenza A
C) Measles
D) Herpes simplex
E) Hepatitis B

_D_ Acyclovir 
_B_ Amantidine
_A_ Vaccine given to travelers to endemic regions
_C_ Live virus vaccine routinely given to infants
_E_ Recombinant viral vaccine

(Year Posted:UI  661)

 

Key Code: V

All of the following viral families have icosahedral symmetry except

A) Reoviridae
B) Rhabdoviridae
C) Picornaviridae
D) Herpesviridae
E) Adenoviridae
F) a bacteriophage

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  662)

 

Key Code: V

Exanthem subitum (roseola infantum) is a common infection of infancy characterized by fever and skin rash of 2 to 4 days' duration. This disease is caused by

A) cytomegalovirus
B) rubella virus
C) varicella-zoster virus)
D) human herpesvirus type 6
E) human herpesvirus type 7
F) Epstein-Barr virus

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  663)

 

Key Code: V

Genetic reassortment is

A) important in intragenic recombination of double-stranded DNA viruses
B) responsible for complementation in mixed infections
C) a genetic interaction of principal importance to viral families with segmented genomes
D) prevalent in parainfluenza and respiratory syncytial virus infections
E) responsible for mosaic capsids in mixed infections of poliovirus type 1 and type 3

Answer: C

(Year Posted: UI  664)

 

Key Code: V

ELISA and Western blot assays of a patient's serum were both positive for HIV-1. However the patient has not had AIDS defining conditions or opportunistic infections. This patient would first be considered at risk for opportunistic infections when she had CD4 cell counts falling below ____ per ul of blood?

A) 2000
B) 1000
C) 750
D) 500
E) 100

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  665)

 

Key Code: V

The family of Norwalk virus is

A) Filoviridae
B) Caliciviridae
C) Bunyaviridae
D) Rhabdoviridae
E) Orthomyxoviridae

Answer: B

(Year Posted:UI  666)

 

Key Code: V

In which of the following diseases would one see a positive Tzanck test?

A) Viral hepatitis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Primary syphilis
D) Herpes keratitis
E) Mumps

Answer: D

(Year Posted: UI  667)

 

Key Code: V

From the list of nucleic acid type viral genomes match with the appropriate virus. Each lettered heading may be used once, more than once, or not at al

A) single-stranded DNA
B) double-stranded DNA
C) single stranded RNA (- sense)
D) single stranded RNA (+ sense)
E) segmented double-stranded RNA
F) partially double-stranded DNA
G) segmented single-stranded RNA (- sense)

_E_ Rotavirus 
_A_ M13 bacteriophage
_G_ Influenza A virus
_F_ Hepatitis B virus
_C_ Respiratory syncytial virus
_C_ Measles virus

(Year Posted: UI  668)

 

Key Code: V

Epstein-Barr virus is the etiologic agent of infectious mononucleosis as well as a number of other diseases. Other microorganisms may cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome characterized by fatigue and malaise. Match each clinical description with the microorganisms with which it is most closely associated. Each lettered heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all

A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Toxoplasma
D) Borrelia burgdorferi
E) Herpes simplex virus
F) Parvovirus B19
G) Rubella virus (togavirus)

_A_ Malaise and fatigue with increased "atypical" lymphocytes and a reactive heterophil antibody test
_A_ Burkitt's lymphoma; characteristic elevated "early antigen" tests
_A_ Detection by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in a variety of cells of patients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma
_B_ Mononucleosis-like syndrome caused by a latent herpesvirus; often a congenital infection

(Year Posted:  UI  669)

 

Key Code: V

For each disease listed below, select the virus most likely to be the causative agent

A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Rotavirus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Adenovirus
E) Papillomavirus
F) Cytomegalovirus

_C_ Chickenpox
_D_ Acute respiratory disease
_E_ Human warts
_B_ Infantile gastroenteritis
_A_ A_ Heterophile-positive infectious mononucleosis

(Year Posted:  UI  670)

 

Key Code: V

Match each virus with the listed virus structure and capsid conformation. Each lettered heading may be used once, more than once, or not at al

A) icosahedral capsid (non-enveloped)
B) togavirus
C) complex
D) icosahedral capsid (enveloped)
E) helical capsid (non-enveloped)
F) icosahedral nucleocapsid (enveloped and with a tegument)

_B_ Rubella virus
_E_ M13 bacteriophage
_C_ a bacteriophage
_A_ Adenovirus
_A_ Picornaviruses
_F_ Human Herpes virus 7

(Year Posted:UI  671)

 

Key Code: V

Use the case description below to answer questions

A 45-year-old man presents with dark slightly raised lesions upon his upper torso. The pathology analysis diagnoses it as Kaposi sarcoma. ELISA and Western analysis of the patient's serum confirm HIV-1 infection and the CD4+ cells are quantified at 150 cells per ul

The virus associated with this neoplasm is

A) Epstein-Barr Virus
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Varicella-Zoster Virus
D) Bunyaviridae
E) Human Herpesvirus 8

Answer: E

The demonstration of the virus presence within the kaposi lesion is best made by

A) serology
B) RNA sequencing
C) negative staining of tissue from the lesion and transmission electron microscopy
D) x-ray crystallography
E) cryoelectron microscopy
F) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) of samples from the lesion

Answer: F

(Year Posted: UI  672)

 

Key Code: V

Use the case description below to answer questions

Jane D. arrives at the women's health clinic complaining of very painful lesions on her genitalia. Examination reveals irregular shaped ulcers and fluid filled vesicular lesions on her labia. Tissue sampling of the base of these lesions demonstrates multi-nucleated giant cells

Which virus is the most likely cause of Jane's illness?

A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Varicella-zoster virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Human herpesvirus 8
E) Epstein-Barr Virus

Answer: A

Therapy for Jane's illness consists of the following

A) topical erythromycin to treat possible secondary infection
B) Famcyclovir
C) Acyclovir
D) Saquinavir
E) Interferon alpha

Answer: C

(Year Posted:  UI  673)

 

Key Code: V

Use the following choices for questions

A) Hepatits A Virus
B) Hepatits B Virus
C) Hepatits C Virus
D) Hepatits D Virus
E) Hepatits E Virus
F) Hepatits G Virus

_D_ This virus is a defective RNA virus sometimes found in HbsAg positive patients
_C_ This flavivirus causes post-transfusional hepatitis in HbsAg negative patients
_A_ This picornavirus is associated with acute self-limiting infections, low mortality, and fecal oral transmission
_E_ This water-borne virus is associated with enterically transmitted non-A, non-B hepatitis outbreaks principally outside the United States
_B_ A genetically engineered vaccine prevents this virus from infections leading to either chronic carrier states or chronic active liver disease

(Year Posted: UI  674)

 

Key Code: V

Use the case descriptions below to answer questions

A 24-year old man known to be infected with HIV for five years begins to develop generalized lymphadenopathy, weight loss and chronic diarrhea. His eyesight is also beginning to fail and this is associated with a burning irritation in both eyes. During the past 2 years, he has suffered from infections with Candida albicans, Herpes zoster and Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare. He visits his physician and learns that his eye problems are due to CMV retinitis.

Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the retinitis?

A) gancyclovir
B) AZT
C) vidarabine
D) ribavirin
E) amantadine

Answer: A

This 24-year-old patient was put on Highly Active Anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) but has been distressed by the side effects and therefore is taking his drug regimen irregularly. He has developed generalized weakness, is forgetful, and suffers depressive episodes. Although alert, the patient cannot repeat short phrases that have just been recited to him. He is often confused about where he is located (work or home) and is not aware of recent current events. Upon neurologic examination ataxia of upper and lower extremities is present and there is numbness in these extremities. MRI of the brain shows several small demyelination lesions in the parietal and occipital white matter and in the left side of the pons

The ataxia is likely to be the result of pathology within

A) the cerebrum
B) the peripheral nervous system
C) the cerebellum
D) sensory neurons

Answer: C

The group of cognitive symptoms displayed by this patient is suggestive of

A) delirium
B) metabolic disorder
C) underlying ataxia
D) dementia
E) cerebral neuron degeneration due to HIV-1 infection

Answer: D

(Year Posted:UI  675)

Key Code: B

For the following questions choose the one best answer from among the 10 possible choices below. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A Bordetella pertussis

F Vibrio cholerae

B Enterococcus faecalisG Group B streptococci

C Shigella sonneiH Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D Staphylococcus aureusI Haemophilus influenzae

E Salmonella enteritidisJ Legionella pneumophila


The above answers for questions are on the topic of Disease transmission.


Transmitted person-to-person via fecal-oral route. In the USA it is frequently transmitted among children in day-care settings and elementary schools.

        Answer: C

Transmitted person-to-person via respiratory droplets from someone with the disease. It is never considered normal flora and there is no carrier state.

        Answer: A

From its normal habitat in the intestinal tract, it colonizes the vagina and is transmitted to the newborn during passage through the birth canal.

        Answer: G

Transmitted to the middle ear of children via spread from its normal flora habitat in the upper respiratory tract.

        Answer: I

From its normal habitat in the aquatic environment, it colonizes the respiratory tract of compromised individuals, especially in hospital environment, and spreads to the bloodstream leading to septicemia.

        Answer: H

From its normal habitat in the nasal mucosa, it transiently contaminates the skin and can cause serious wound infections.

        Answer: D

 

        (Year Posted:UI  676)

 

Key Code: B

A Campylobacter jejuni

F Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B Haemophilus influenzae (untypable)G Streptococcus pneumoniae

C Streptococcus pyogenesH Helicobacter pylori

D Staphylococcus aureusI Neisseria gonorrheae

E Neisseria meningitidisJ Legionella pneumophila


Answers for questions are on the topic of Bacteria and Their Diseases.


Urethritis, pharyngitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, arthritis

        Answer: I

Pharyngitis, pneumonia, impetigo, necrotizing fasciitis, toxic shock syndrome

        Answer: C

Septicimea, endotoxic shock, meningitis

        Answer: E

Chronic pulmonary infection with granulomatous lesions, meningitis

        Answer: F

Otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, meningitis

        Answer: G

Gastritis, peptic ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma

        Answer: H

 

        (Year Posted: UI  677)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: I

A Escherichia coli

F Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B Haemophilus influenzaeG Streptococcus pneumoniae

C Corynebacterium diphtheriaeH Bordetella pertussis

D Staphylococcus aureusI Salmonella typhi

E Neisseria meningitidisJ Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answers for questions are on the topic of Bacterial Vaccines

A new accelular vaccine has replaced the older killed whole-cell vaccine; vaccination begins at two months.


        Answer: H

Conjugate vaccine composed of polysaccharide capsule (1 serotype) conjugated to protein; vaccination begins at two months.

        Answer: B

Protein toxoid vaccine; vaccination begins at two months. Toxin and toxoid are coinjected to check for antibody levels to the organism.

        Answer: C

Conjugate vaccine composed of polysaccharide capsule (7 serotypes) conjugated to protein; vaccination begins at two months.

        Answer: G

Purified polysaccharide capsule vaccine composed of 4 different serogroups; approved only for children over the age of two.

        Answer: E

Live, attenuated vaccine; not recommended for routine use in the USA.

        Answer: F

A live, attenuated vaccine and a purified capsular polysaccharide vaccine are both available for diseases caused by this organism.

        Answer: I

 

        (Year Posted:UI  678)

 

Key Code: B

A Escherichia coli (EHEC)

F Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B Mycobacterium lepraeG Staphylococcus aureus

C Streptococcus pyogenesH Legionella pneumophila

D Vibrio choleraeI Salmonella typhi

E Neisseria meningitidisJ Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answers to questions are on the topic of Bacteria and their Virulence Factors

The major virulence factor for this organism is a protein exotoxin, which stimulates an increase in cAMP in the intestinal cells and initiates massive fluid secretion.


        Answer: D

The major cell-associated virulence factor for this organism is a long fibrillar protein molecule composed of two alpha-helical chains and multiple (i.e. >60) serotypes. It plays a major role in resistance to phagocytosis and inhibits opsonization.


        Answer: C

The major virulence characteristic of this bacterium is the ability to replicate intracellularly within histiocytes in the skin and Schwann nerve cells.


        Answer: B

The major virulence characteristic for this organism is the ability to replicate intracellularly within alveolar macrophages in the lungs (and free-living protozoa in the environment).


        Answer: H

The major virulence factor for this organism is a secreted toxin which damages endothelial cells in the large intestines and also the kidneys.


        Answer: A

 

        (Year Posted:UI  679)

 

Key Code: B

Which one of the following diseases would Most Likely have a positive blood culture?

A) Uncomplicated gonorrhea
B) Salmonellosis food poisoning
C) Legonnaires disease pneumonia
D) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
E) Pertussis
F) E. coli hemorrhagic colitis and HUS
G) P. aeruginosa lung infection (CF patient)
H) Cholera

Answer: D


(Year Posted:UI  680)

 

Key Code: B

Which one of the following organisms would Most Likely to cause pneumonia?

A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Campylobacter jejuni
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Viridans streptococci
E) Neisseria meningitidis
F) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
G) Helicobacter pylori

Answer: C

 

(Year Posted:UI  681)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: I

In recent years, new kinds of tests have been added to the traditional laboratory diagnosis of bacterial diseases (i.e Gram stain and culture). These new tests detect the presence of bacterial antigens in different clinical specimens, such as throat swabs, spinal fluid, or urine. Which one of the following bacteria is the only one for which there is no antigen detection test?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Group B streptococci
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Legionella pneumophila
F) Neisseria meningitidis
G) Haemophilus influenzae

Answer: D

 

(Year Posted: UI  682)

 

Key Code: B, Key Code: N

Which one of the following organisms is commonly antibiotic sensitive and resistance has not been a problem?

A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Enterococcus species
F) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer: C

 

(Year Posted: UI  683)

 

Key Code: B

A predominance of Lactobacillus species at which of the following body sites would be interpreted as an indication of healthy normal flora?

A) skin
B) nasopharynx
C) urethra
D) vagina
E) small intestines
F) ears

Answer: D

 

(Year Posted: UI  684)

 

Key Code: P

Following graduation from your local medical school, you take on the duty of institutional safety officer. Your microbiology professor comes to you with a very suspicious envelope from the Near East. You strongly suspect that there are Bacillus anthracis spores in the envelope. What is the most effective way to inactivate any spores in this envelope?

A) Burn it
B) Treat it with phenol
C) Bury it
D) Autoclave it
E) Treat it with hydrogen peroxide
F) Treat it with radiation

Answer: D

 

(Year Posted:  UI  685)

 

Key Code: N

Your professor is rather frantic about possible contamination and demands that you give him a prescription for ciprofloxacin. You tell him this is not the best choice since it has some side effects and there is high cost. Nevertheless, you do remember from your microbiology course that ciprofloxacin affects the:

A) cell wall
B) gyrase/topoisomerase
C) intermediary metabolism
D) membrane
E) 30S ribosome subunit
F) 50S ribosome subunit
G) RNA polymerase

Answer: B

 

(Year Posted:UI  686)

 

Key Code: B

So, you suggest that your professor be treated with amoxicillin or doxycyclene. A much better alternative. Your professor remembers that amoxicillin is a penam, but asks you about the mechanism of action of doxycyclene. You of course remember and tell him it affects the:

A) cell wall
B) gyrase/topoisomerase
C) intermediary metabolism
D) membrane
E) 30S ribosome subunit

Answer: E

 

(Year Posted:UI  687)

 

Key Code: N

A Amikacin

E Nafcillin

B AmoxicillinF Rifampin

C ChloramphenicolG Trimethoprim

D MiconazoleH Vancomycin

For the questions below choose the one best antibiotic as the answer. Each choice may be use once, more than once or not at all.

This is a penam antibiotic which is resistant to beta-lactamase activity.


Answer: E
 

This antibiotic penetrates inside neutrophils and is an important part of tuberculosis therapy.

        Answer: F

This antibiotic inhibits the activity of the petidyl transferase on the 50S ribosomal subunit.

        Answer: C

        

        (Year Posted:  UI  688)

 

Key Code: N, Key Code: P

A Reduced uptake into the bacterial cell

B Active efflux from the cell

C Enzymatic inactivation

D Metabolic bypass

E Alteration of target to reduce binding of antibiotic

For the antibiotic choices below, select the method by which bacteria develop resistance. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Vancomycin

        Answer: E

Tetracyclene

        Answer: B

Ampicillin

        Answer: C


        

        (Year Posted: UI  689)

 

Key Code: I

Select the one best answer. If an immunoglobulin molecule is found to have one kappa light chain, what can be said about the other light chain?

A) It might be a lambda chain
B) It might be a mu chain
C) It must be a kappa chain
D) Not enough information given to make a decision
E) It could be any light chain

Answer: C

 

(Year Posted: UI  690)

 

Key Code: I

Suppose you are the physician on a desert island where your airplane has managed a successful emergency landing. In your 'black bag' you have many medications, but only a single dose of RhoGam. Unfortunately, there were three pregnant Rh negative women on the airplane, all of whom have gone into labor. Fortunately, they are each carrying their pertinent medical records. It turns out that Alice has Rh-, AB red cells and her husband has Rh+, AB red cells. Judy has Rh-, A (could be AA or OA) red cells and her husband has Rh-, B red cells (could be BB or OB). Sarah has Rh-, O red cells and her husband has Rh+, AB red cells. Who is MOST in need of the RhoGam?

A) Sarah
B) Alice
C) Judy
D) Not enough information to make a decision
E) None of these women needs RhoGam

Answer: B

 

(Year Posted: UI  691)

 

Key Code: I

Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Antibodies cannot recognize antigen in solution
B) Antibodies can only bind antigens when the antibody is attached to a cell
C) The T cell receptor can only bind antigen in solution
D) The T cell receptor can only bind antigen when the antigen is degraded and bound to a class I or class II MHC molecule
E) None of the above statements are true


Answer: D

 

(Year Posted: UI  692)

 

Key Code: I

Resting T helper cells are distinguished by the presence of

A) The CD8 molecule
B) The CD5 molecule
C) Membrane immunoglobulin
D) The CD4 molecule
E) Large amounts of class II MHC surface moleculest

Answer: D

 

(Year Posted:UI  693)

 

Key Code: I

All of the following are associated with non-specific immunity EXCEPT

A) B lymphocytes
B) Phagocytic cells
C) Complement
D) Skin
E) Normal bacterial flora

Answer: A

 

(Year Posted: UI  694)

 

Key Code: I

In order for T lymphocytes to become functionally mature, they must undergo differentiation in the

A) Bone marrow
B) Fetal liver
C) Thymus
D) Lymph nodes
E) Spleen

Answer: C

 

(Year Posted: UI  695)

 

Key Code: I

The process by which bacteria are coated with immunoglobulins or with certain complement components making the organisms more easily phagocytized is called

A) Optimization
B) Neutralization
C) Opsonization
D) Lysis
E) Activation

Answer: C

 

(Year Posted: 2002 UI  696)

 

Key Code: I

The most common immunodeficiency seen in humans is

A) Selective IgA deficiency
B) Severe combined immunodeficiency
C) Chronic granulomatous disease
D) AIDS associated immunodeficiency
E) Bruton agammaglobulinemia

Answer: A

 

(Year Posted: 2002 UI  697)

 

Key Code: I

Myasthenia gravis results from production of antibodies against

A) Insulin
B) DNA
C) Acetylcholine receptor
D) Basophils
E) Thyroid hormone

Answer: C

 

(Year Posted: 2002 UI  698)

 

Key Code: I

The increase in affinity of antibodies during repeated immunization with the same antigen is thought to be due to

A) Inflammation and opsonization
B) Clonal selection
C) iIncreased concentration of IgG later in the immune response
D) A memory response
E) It is not true that affinity increases during an immune response

Answer: B

 

(Year Posted:UI  699)

 

Key Code: P

A 26-year-old woman was referred to a public health clinic as a result of contact tracing in a case of gonorrhea. The woman, who had recently had unprotected sexual intercourse, had no symptoms. Physical examination was normal. Pelvic examination demonstrated a white vaginal discharge but was otherwise unremarkable. Cervical culture was obtained for Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and a specimen was submitted for Chlamydia trachomatis testing. Examination of a wet preparation of the vaginal discharge revealed the presence of a protozoan with a characteristic jerky motility. What organism is likely to be present in this specimen?

A) Giardia lamblia
B) Neisseria gonorrohoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Chilomastix mesnili

Answer: D

 

(Year Posted:UI  700)